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Question 1 of 28
1. Question
The following Vignette applies to the next 2 items
A 33-year-old Caucasian female presents to your office with a six-month history of cold intolerance. When the weather is cold, her third and fourth fingers on both hands get numb and turn blue. She says, ‘I wear gloves to keep my hands warm, but it does not always work’. Her past medical history is significant for non-ulcer dyspepsia treated with omeprazole. She does not smoke or consume alcohol, and denies any recreational drug use. She has no known drug allergies. She works as a nurse at a local hospital and considers her job moderately stressful. She is sexually active with her husband and uses condoms for contraception. Physical examination findings are within normal limits.
Item 1of 2
Which of the following medications is the best initial treatment for this patient?
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Question 2 of 28
2. Question
Item 2 of 2
The patient returns in one month and complains that the treatment ‘does not help much.’ In addition, she has started to experience periodic joint and muscle pain. She says that she has been adherent to the medication and has tried to avoid going out in cold weather as much as possible. Her husband even gave up smoking because you had warned her that passive smoking may worsen her condition. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
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Question 3 of 28
3. Question
A 61-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe pain in his right knee over the last 12 hours. He also has had malaise and low-grade fever. He has not had any trauma. He has peptic ulcer disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic renal insufficiency. He was hospitalized one year ago for upper gastrointestinal bleeding that required a blood transfusion. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. He describes himself as a “heavy drinker.” Temperature is 37.9 C (100.1 F), blood pressure is 152/87 mm Hg, and pulse is 96/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Examination shows a swollen, warm, and tender right knee. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hematocrit 40% Leukocytes 15,200/mm3 Platelets 190,000/mm3 Creatinine 3.9 mg/dL Blood urea nitrogen 47 mg/dL Blood glucose 226 mg/dL Serum uric acid 9.1 mg/dL Aspiration of the knee joint is performed. Compensated, polarized, light microscopic analysis of the aspirate shows intracellular needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. Gram staining of the synovial fluid shows no bacteria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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Question 4 of 28
4. Question
A 65-year-old woman comes to the office with a 6-month history of dry mouth. She says that she feels dry all day long and has to drink water. She also has had a sandy sensation in her eyes, especially after watching television for a while. Medical history is significant for long-term hypertension that is controlled with metoprolol. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. Her recent fasting blood glucose level was normal. Physical examination findings are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
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Question 5 of 28
5. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 3 items. The items in the set must be answered in sequential order. Once you click Proceed to Next Item, you will not be able to add or change an answer.
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office due to progressive stiffness, pain, and swelling of the joints in the hands and wrists for the past 3 months. The symptoms are worse when she wakes up and gradually improve after several hours. The patient also feels fatigued but has had no skin rashes, oral lesions, or fever. She recently began taking chlorthalidone for hypertension and takes no other medications. She works in a daycare center. The patient drinks alcohol occasionally and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Her mother had “arthritis” in her older age, and her sister has systemic lupus erythematosus. Temperature and other vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows warmth, swelling, and tenderness of the second and third proximal interphalangeal joints, the metacarpophalangeal joints, and the wrists of both hands. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities.
Item 1 of 3
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
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Question 6 of 28
6. Question
Item 2 of 3
A week later, the patient returns to the office and says that her symptoms have improved with the prescribed treatment. Laboratory results are as follows:
Antinuclear antibody
negative
Rheumatoid factor
negative
Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
negative
C-reactive protein
55 mg/L (normal: ≤8)
Hand x-rays reveal mild periarticular osteopenia and early erosions of the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
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Question 7 of 28
7. Question
Item 3 of 3
Additional laboratory results show normal hepatic aminotransferase levels. The patient is advised to avoid alcohol consumption. She receives appropriate immunizations, and methotrexate therapy is begun. Which of the following additional interventions is the most appropriate in this patient?
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Question 8 of 28
8. Question
A 53-year-old woman comes to the office with a 6-month history of pain and tightness in the neck, posterior shoulders, and buttocks. The pain is aggravated by exertion, stress, and lack of sleep. She also has fatigue and insomnia. The patient has had intermittent constipation but no other bowel or bladder problems or daytime somnolence. Vital signs are normal. Examination shows widespread symmetric tenderness to firm palpation over muscles and bony prominences. Spinal motion is normal. Strength is 5/5 and deep tendon reflexes are 2+ in all extremities. There are no sensory deficits, rashes, or areas of joint swelling or tenderness. Recent laboratory testing shows a normal complete blood count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient?
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Question 9 of 28
9. Question
A 42-year-old woman comes to the office due to stiffness and weakness of her hands over the past 6 months. The patient has had decreased grip strength and frequent episodes in which her hands felt so stiff that she could not let go of objects. She also has had fatigue and excessive sleepiness and says, “I can sleep 15 hours straight and still wake up tired.” Medical history is significant for prediabetes and cataract surgery. The patient takes no medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her father experienced sudden cardiac death. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a flat affect and mild bilateral ptosis. Hand grip is weak bilaterally, and mild atrophy of the small muscles of the hands is present. The patient has difficulty releasing her grip after grasping the examiner’s hand. Deep tendon reflexes are normal throughout, and Babinski sign is absent. Sensation is intact. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis of this patient?
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Question 10 of 28
10. Question
A 53-year-old woman comes to the office for an annual health care visit. Her last menstrual period was 1 year ago. Medical history is unremarkable, and the patient takes no medications, vitamins, or herbal supplements. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Family history is notable only for coronary artery disease in her father and colon cancer in a paternal aunt. The patient jogs and does weight-training exercises for up to 1 hour daily. Results of screening colonoscopy, mammogram, and pap test were normal a year ago. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 20 kg/m2. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the best next step in management?
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Question 11 of 28
11. Question
A 46-year-old woman comes to the office to follow up on back pain. The patient was involved in a motor vehicle collision 2 weeks ago and was transported to the emergency department due to back pain. Imaging revealed a bulging disc at L4-L5, with no nerve root impingement, and she was released with a prescription for naproxen. Since then, the patient has had only partial relief of pain; it is rated as 7 on a scale of 0-10 in severity and radiates to her right hip and thigh. Medical history is notable for hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Examination shows tenderness in the right paraspinal region at the L4 level. Lower extremity motor strength and reflexes are normal, and straight-leg raising test is negative. The patient states, “My back is going to ruin my life. My mother lost her job due to back pain, and now I just know I’m going to lose my job, too.” Which of the following is most predictive of poor long-term functional status in this patient?
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Question 12 of 28
12. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 2 items
A healthy 75-year-old African-American man comes to the physician because of persistent lower back pain for the past six months. The pain disappears when he sits down, improves when he bends over his knees, and gets worse when he extends his back. A couple of times before, when he was walking, he had a sudden onset of intense pain radiating from his back to his thighs. His other medical problems include hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He lives in a house with his wife. His medications include aspirin, atenolol, lansoprazole, and naproxen. He has no known drug allergies. On physical examination, straight-leg raising to 90 degrees is negative. Hyperextension of the lumbar spine produces lumbar pain radiating to the gluteal region. His pedal pulses are palpable and full.
Item 1 of 2
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 13 of 28
13. Question
Item 2 of 2
Which of the following is the most helpful in establishing the patient’s diagnosis?
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Question 14 of 28
14. Question
A 69-year-old man comes to the physician with bilateral shoulder and thigh pain for 2-3 months. The pain is associated with prolonged morning stiffness. He also complains of new-onset intermittent right-sided headaches and jaw pain. His only other medical problem is hypertension. The patient’s medications include acetaminophen, lisinopril, and chlorthalidone. Examination shows no significant neck, shoulder, or thigh tenderness. He has normal passive range of motion at the shoulders but bilateral stiffness with active abduction. Joints show no obvious synovitis. Neurologic examination, including muscular strength, is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test for this patient?
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Question 15 of 28
15. Question
A 41-year-old woman comes to the office due to pain and persistent morning stiffness in both hands for the past 6 months. The patient has used ibuprofen and intermittent courses of an oral glucocorticoid agent, but as soon as she stops the glucocorticoid the stiffness and pain recur. Examination is notable for tenderness and swelling of metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints bilaterally. Further evaluation confirms the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus. Hydroxychloroquine is prescribed along with long-term glucocorticoid therapy with prednisone 5 mg/day. DXA scan result is a T-score of −0.8 at the lumbar spine and −0.9 at the femoral neck. The patient’s estimated 10-year risk for major osteoporotic fracture is 2.8%, and for hip fracture it is 0.1%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
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Question 16 of 28
16. Question
The following vignette applies to the next 2 items. The items in the set must be answered in sequential order. Once you click Proceed to Next Item, you will not be able to add or change an answer.
A 53-year-old man comes to the office due to progressive pain and stiffness in his hands for the past several months. The patient’s symptoms are worse in the morning, and he has difficulty shaving or holding a coffee cup. The stiffness lasts for about 15 minutes and the pain gradually improves through the course of the day, but he often has to take acetaminophen for complete relief. For the past 3 weeks, he has experienced pain in the left knee, especially after prolonged rest. The patient has also had progressive fatigue over the past year. Medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, which was diagnosed 6 months ago and is treated with metformin. He works as a sales representative and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is remarkable for diabetes mellitus in his father. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F), blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. Physical examination shows normal jugular venous pressure, clear lung fields, and normal heart sounds. The abdomen is nondistended, soft, and nontender. The liver is palpable 1 cm below the right costal margin. There is moderate swelling, warmth, and mild tenderness and decreased range of motion of the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints in both hands. A small effusion and tenderness of the left knee is present without any redness. Radiography of the hand reveals narrowing of the joint space, particularly of the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints, along with subchondral sclerosis, curved osteophytes, subchondral cysts, and osteopenia. An arthrocentesis of the knee is performed, and the synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 20,000 cells/mm3 with 80% neutrophils. Gram stain shows no organisms, and polarization microscopy reveals positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals.
Item 1 of 2
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s joint pain?
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Question 17 of 28
17. Question
Item 2 of 2
Additional studies are performed and the diagnosis is established. If this patient’s current condition remains untreated, he is at greatest risk for which of the following?
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Question 18 of 28
18. Question
An 85-year-old woman is brought to the office by her daughter due to left groin pain that started 3 weeks ago. The patient usually uses a walker to ambulate, but since the onset of pain she has had increasing difficulty with ambulation and has curtailed her usual activities. She has had no fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, dysuria, or hematuria and has had no recent falls or injuries. Medical history is notable for mild dementia and osteoporosis. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. BMI is 20 kg/m2. Examination shows mild tenderness in the left groin. There are no abdominal masses, and bowel sounds are normoactive. Gentle, passive range of motion at the left hip is smooth and pain free, but active flexion of the hip reproduces the patient’s pain. Lower extremity motor strength and reflexes are normal for age and symmetric. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 19 of 28
19. Question
A 24-year-old female soccer player comes to the office with right anterior knee pain. The pain has been present for 3-4 months with gradual onset and a persistent course. It is worsened by climbing and descending stairs and prolonged sitting. A trial of over-the-counter ibuprofen was not helpful. The patient reports several previous minor lower-extremity injuries from playing soccer but no significant trauma. Her past medical history is otherwise negative. There is crepitation and pain on extension of the knee with anterior patellar compression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
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Question 20 of 28
20. Question
A 36-year-old white female with systemic lupus erythematosus was seen in your clinic. She has been on prednisone for lupus nephritis for the past year. Decreasing the dose of prednisone below 10 mg per day appears to be associated with an increase in proteinuria. She is currently on no other medications except for birth control pills. She denies any symptoms. She has normal menstrual cycles and is sexually active with one partner. She has no children. Because of a fear of weight gain, she has been restricting dairy products in her diet. She avoids sunlight due to a fear of skin cancer. She is concerned about bone loss secondary to prednisone use. Which of the following should be given to prevent bone loss in this patient?
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Question 21 of 28
21. Question
A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of worsening low back pain. He reports no significant trauma that would account for the pain, which started after he drove 12 hours in a single day while returning from vacation. The patient says, “As long as I stay in bed or in a recliner, it’s okay, but if I twist, bend over, or stand up too fast, the pain is excruciating.” He has tried using a heating pad with no relief. Medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. Examination shows reduced lumbar lordosis and tenderness in the right midlumbar paraspinal area. Motor strength, reflexes, and sensation in the lower extremities are normal. With the patient supine and the knee extended, lifting the right leg past 60 degrees elicits achy pain only in the posterior thigh. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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Question 22 of 28
22. Question
A 36-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe left ankle pain. While running on a racetrack, the patient heard a loud snap and then felt a sudden “excruciating pain” in her ankle. She could bear weight afterward but had difficulty walking. The patient was once a marathon runner but stopped 2 years ago after having her first baby. She started retraining a week ago for an upcoming race. The patient has no chronic medical conditions. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following findings is most accurate for confirming complete Achilles tendon rupture in this patient?
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Question 23 of 28
23. Question
A 22-year-old college football player comes to the emergency department with right leg pain and weakness. Over the past week, he has been participating in spring practices, which have consisted of intensive weight training and running drills. After his workout yesterday, the patient had generalized muscle soreness but noticed his right leg seemed particularly painful. This morning, the right leg pain was more severe, and he had difficulty walking. Vital signs are normal. On examination, the right anterior lower leg is swollen and tense. There is no pain in the posterior lower leg. The patient is unable to actively dorsiflex the foot, and passive extension of the ankle and toes causes severe pain. There is also weakness on great toe extension. Sensation is decreased in the first web space. Posterior tibial and dorsal pedis pulses are normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
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Question 24 of 28
24. Question
A 65-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss the results of bone density testing. She is worried because her 85-year-old mother recently died while recovering from a hip fracture. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol and gets regular exercise. Her last menstrual period was 13 years ago, and she is not taking any form of hormone replacement therapy. Vital signs and physical examination are within normal limits. BMI is 19 kg/m2. DXA scan reveals a T-score of −1.8 at the lumbar spine and −1.7 at the hip, consistent with osteopenia. In addition to appropriate calcium and vitamin D supplementation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
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Question 25 of 28
25. Question
A 60-year-old Caucasian female presents to your office with several months history of a sandy sensation in her eyes, especially in the evening, and while watching TV or working in front of the computer. Her past medical history is significant for right knee osteoarthritis. She occasionally takes naproxen to relieve her knee pain. Her family history is significant for a father with hypertension and a mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 65. She drinks one cup of decaffeinated coffee in the morning. Physical examination reveals several white patches on her buccal mucosa. Her recent fasting blood glucose level was normal. Which of the following questions is most appropriate in this case?
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Question 26 of 28
26. Question
A 52-year-old man comes to the office due to difficulty using his left hand. Over the last year, he has had progressive stiffness at the palm and third and fourth digits, which has led to difficulty doing yard work and typing at his computer. The patient has tried splints and warm compresses without relief. He has no history of trauma to the hand and no other musculoskeletal issues. On examination, the patient has decreased extension at the left third and fourth metacarpophalangeal joints. Findings of the left hand examination are shown below:
Which of the following is most closely associated with this patient’s condition?
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Question 27 of 28
27. Question
A 76-year-old woman comes to the office due to malaise accompanied by diffuse, achy pain. The pain began 6 weeks ago and is most pronounced around her shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles. The patient has no headache, visual symptoms, fever, rash, muscle weakness, or urinary symptoms. She has a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and osteoporosis. The patient’s medications include enalapril, simvastatin, alendronate, and hydrochlorothiazide. Family history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Physical examination shows mild tenderness in the muscles of the pelvic girdle. The rest of the physical examination is unrevealing. Routine laboratory studies, including serum creatine kinase levels, are normal. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
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Question 28 of 28
28. Question
A 55-year-old man comes to the office due to severe pain and swelling in his right big toe. He has hypertension, osteoarthritis, glucose intolerance controlled with diet, and recent peptic ulcer disease. The patient is not on medication for hypertension. On physical examination, his first metatarsophalangeal joint has diffuse swelling, and the skin surrounding the joint is erythematous. The joint is exquisitely tender to palpation and has severe restrictions in movement. Aspiration of the joint fluid reveals an inflammatory effusion with multiple negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals within polymorphonuclear cells. The patient is treated with colchicine and shows good response to therapy. Two weeks later, he comes for follow-up. Blood pressure is 152/93 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. BMI is 36 kg/m2. Serum uric acid is 8.2 mg/dL, potassium is 4.1 mEq/L, serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL, and liver function tests are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best additional therapy for this patient?
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